Originally posted by Mike Swanson
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Apparently the engine draws heat from both heat sources, hot and cold(slightly less hot)
Starting out at temperature 1 (cold), heat is supplied which expands the working fluid. The expansion, of course, drives the piston, converting the added heat to motion (momentum)
As the gas expands and cools it eventually reaches the original cold temperature before heat was added, but now the working fluid is moved to the cold(less hot) side and momentum carries the expansion further drawing heat now from the "less hot" side.
Heat is energy, and energy can be used to produce refrigeration. So why should this be considered "impossible"?
If you object to that you could just say that it should melt the ice anything else is weird or something, but sad they banned you . Not surprised unfortunately.
A last resort when they are unable to support their own assumptions with some sound logic or empirical evidence.
I wonder what happened to Jorge_Garcia.
I think I've managed to demonstrate a slight refrigerating effect. That is, rather than just not "consuming the coldness", the temperature of the cold side apparently fell a degree or two:
https://youtu.be/P11q-BAhvqk
Three hours running on boiling hot water and the cold side temperature not only did not increase it apparently decreased slightly.
A gas refrigerator uses heat from a small gas flame to compress and then expand a gas and make ice, so what's the big deal?
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